India suggest that the whole of Jazirat-ul-Arab
could he taken away consistently with that pledge from the sphere of
influence of the Khalif, and given over to the Allies as mandatory
Powers? Why does the Government of India sympathise with the Indian
Mussalmans if the terms are all they should be? So much for the pledge.
I would like to guard myself against being understood that I stand or
fall absolutely by Mr. Lloyd George's declaration. I have advisedly used
the adverb 'practically' in connection with it. It is an important
qualification.'

Mr. Candler seems to suggest that my goal is something more than merely
attaining justice on the Khilafat. If so, he is right. Attainment of
justice is undoubtedly the corner-stone, and if I found that I was wrong
in my conception of justice on this question, I hope I shall have the
courage immediately to retrace my steps. But by helping the Mahomedans
of India at a critical moment in their history, I want to buy their
friendship. Moreover, if I can carry the Mahomedans with me I hope to
wean Great Britain from the downward path along which the Prime Minister
seems to me to be taking her. I hope also to show to India and the
Empire at large that given a certain amount of capacity for
self-sacrifice, justice can be secured by peacefullest and cleanest
means without sowing or increasing bitterness between English and
Indians. For, whatever may be the temporary effect of my methods, I know
enough of them to feel certain that they alone are immune from lasting
bitterness. They are untainted with hatred, expedience or untruth.

IN PROCESS OF KEEPING

The writer of 'Current Topics' in the "Times of India" has attempted to
challenge the statement made in my Khilafat article regarding
ministerial pledges, and in doing so cites Mr. Asquith's Guild-Hall
speech of November 10, 1914. When I wrote the articles, I had in mind
Mr. Asquith's speech. I am sorry that he ever made that speech. For, in
my humble opinion, it betrayed to say the least, a confusion of thought.
Could he think of the Turkish people as apart from the Ottoman
Government? And what is the meaning of the death-knell of Ottoman
Dominion in Europe and Asia if it be not the death knell of Turkish
people as a free and governing race? Is it, again, true historically
that the Turkish rule has always been a blight that 'has withered some
of the fairest regions of the earth?' And what is the meaning of his
statement that followe