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alsely; some calling it "_a part of the verb_," while they neither join it to the verb as a prefix, nor include it among the auxiliaries. Thus Kirkham: "_To_ is not a preposition when _joined to_ a verb in this mood; thus, _to_ ride, _to_ rule; but it should be parsed _with the verb_, and _as a part_ of it."--_Gram. in Familiar Lect._, p. 137. So R. C. Smith: "This little word _to_ when _used before_ verbs in this manner, is not a preposition, but forms a part of the verb, and, in parsing, should be so considered."--_Productive Gram._, p. 65. How can that be "_a part_ of the verb," which is _a word_ used _before_ it? or how is _to_ "joined to the verb," or made a part of it, in the phrase, "_to_ ride?" But Smith does not abide by his own doctrine; for, in an other part of his book, he adopts the phraseology of Murray, and makes _to_ a preposition: saying, "The _preposition_ TO, though generally used before the latter verb, is sometimes properly omitted; as, 'I heard him say it;' instead of '_to_ say it.'"--_Productive Gram._, p. 156. See _Murray's Rule_ 12th. OBS. 11.--Most English grammarians have considered the word _to_ as a part of the infinitive, a part _of the verb_; and, like the teachers of Latin, have referred the government of this mood to a preceding verb. But the rule which they give, is partial, and often inapplicable; and their exceptions to it, or the heterogeneous parts into which some of them divide it, are both numerous and puzzling. They teach that at least half of the ten different parts of speech "_frequently_ govern the infinitive:" if so, there should be a distinct rule for each; for why should the government of one part of speech be made an exception to that of an other? and, if this be done, with respect to the infinitive, why not also with respect to the objective case? In all instances to which their rule is applicable, the rule which I have given, amounts to the same thing; and it obviates the necessity for their numerous exceptions, and the embarrassment arising from other constructions of the infinitive not noticed in them. Why then is the simplest solution imaginable still so frequently rejected for so much complexity and inconsistency? Or how can the more common rule in question be suitable for a child, if its applicability depends on a relation between the two verbs, which the preposition _to_ sometimes expresses, and sometimes does not? OBS. 12.--All authors admit that in some instance
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