write in the
third verse: "Six days shall work be done, but the _seventh_ day is the
Sabbath of rest, an holy convocation, ye shall do no work therein, it is
the Sabbath of the LORD in all your dwellings." Now Moses has here
declared from the mouth of the Lord, that these are ALL the feast of the
Lord, (there is no more nor less) and every thing is to be upon _his
day_, and he has clearly and definitely separated his Sabbath from the
other four. And in the 28th and 29th chapters of Numbers the sacrifices
[14]and offerings for each of these days are made so plain, beginning
with the Sabbath, 9v, that we have only to read the following to
understand. 26. xxix: 1. First day, seventh month, (new moon;) 7v, 10th
day Sabbath; 12v; 15th day Sabbath, and 35v, 23d day Sabbath. And in the
days of Nehemiah when Ezra had read the law to the people, viii (more
than one thousand years after they were promulgated,) they bound
themselves under an oath "to walk in God's law which was given _by the
hand of Moses_, the servant of God." "And to observe and _do all the
commandments_ of the Lord, our Lord." x: 29. And that there might be no
misunderstanding about the kind of Sabbaths, they say, "If the people
bring ware or any victuals on the Sabbath day to sell, that we would not
buy it of them on the Sabbath or on the holy day," (31v.) but they would
"charge themselves yearly with a third part of a shekel" (to pay for)
"the burnt _offerings_ of the _Sabbaths_, of the _new moons_, for the
_set feasts_," &c. (33v.) for the house of God, including what has
already been set forth in Leviticus and Numbers. Now as their feast days
commenced and ended with a Sabbath, so when their feasts ceased to be
binding on them these Sabbaths must also, and all were "nailed to the
cross." Now I ask if there is one particle of proof that the Sabbath of
the Lord is included in these Sabbaths and feast days? Who then dare
join them together or contradict the Most High God, and call HIS the
_Jewish_ Sabbath. _Theirs_ was nailed to the cross when Jesus died,
while the Lord's is an _everlasting_ sign a _perpetual covenant_. The
Jews, as a nation, broke their covenant. Jesus and his disciples were
one week (the last of the seventy) that is seven years, confirming the
new covenant for another people, the Gentiles. Now I ask if this
changing the subjects from Jew to Gentile made void the commandments and
law of God, or in other words, abolished the fourth commandment;