42

OF CHRIST'S DOCTRINE
(In Four Articles)

We have now to consider Christ's doctrine, about which there are four
points of inquiry:

(1) Whether Christ should have preached to the Jews only, or to the
Gentiles also?

(2) Whether in preaching He should have avoided the opposition of the
Jews?

(3) Whether He should have preached in an open or in a hidden manner?

(4) Whether He should have preached by word only, or also by writing?

Concerning the time when He began to teach, we have spoken above when
treating of His baptism (Q. 29, A. 3).
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FIRST ARTICLE [III, Q. 42, Art. 1]

Whether Christ Should Have Preached Not Only to the Jews, but Also to
the Gentiles?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ should have preached not only
to the Jews, but also to the Gentiles. For it is written (Isa. 49:6):
"It is a small thing that thou shouldst be My servant to raise up the
tribes of Israel [Vulg.: 'Jacob'] and to convert the dregs of Jacob
[Vulg.: 'Israel']: behold, I have given thee to be the light of the
Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation even to the farthest part
of the earth." But Christ gave light and salvation through His
doctrine. Therefore it seems that it was "a small thing" that He
preached to Jews alone, and not to the Gentiles.

Obj. 2: Further, as it is written (Matt. 7:29): "He was teaching them
as one having power." Now the power of doctrine is made more manifest
in the instruction of those who, like the Gentiles, have received no
tidings whatever; hence the Apostle says (Rom. 15:20): "I have so
preached the [Vulg.: 'this'] gospel, not where Christ was named, lest
I should build upon another man's foundation." Therefore much rather
should Christ have preached to the Gentiles than to the Jews.

Obj. 3: Further, it is more useful to instruct many than one. But
Christ instructed some individual Gentiles, such as the Samaritan
woman (John 4) and the Chananaean woman (Matt. 15). Much more reason,
therefore, was there for Christ to preach to the Gentiles in general.

_On the contrary,_ our Lord said (Matt. 15:24): "I was not sent but
to the sheep that are lost of the house of Israel." And (Rom. 10:15)
it is written: "How shall they preach unless they be sent?" Therefore
Christ should not have preached to the Gentiles.

_I answer that,_ It was fitting that Christ's preaching, whether
through Himself or through His apostles, should be directed at first
to the Jews alone