rched into Midian, slew all the
males, and seized the women, children, flocks, and herds. On their
return Moses reprimanded them for disobeying God's command by preserving
the grown women; and thereupon they killed all but the virgins and
children, reserving them for adoption into the families of the nation.
In Deut. 20:14 and 21:10-14, we have these commands and regulations
given, with an express prohibition of the enslavement of these captives,
in case of repudiation by the captors. "It shall be, if thou have no
delight in her, then thou shalt let her go whither she will; but thou
shalt not sell her at all for money; thou shalt not make merchandise of
her, because thou hast humbled her." Now, all slaveholding tribes and
nations, when they seize captives for slaves, aim to obtain as many
strong and vigorous men as possible; must it not, therefore, fairly be
inferred from this regulation that God, by prohibiting instead of
sanctioning the most productive mode of slave-making,--the enslavement
of prisoners of war,--did not intend, but positively prohibited, the
Israelites from becoming a slaveholding nation?

Secondly, "bought with money." The law referring to these is Lev. 25:44,
46. "Both thy bondmen and thy bondmaids which thou shalt have shall be
of the heathen round about you; of them shall ye buy bondmen and
bondmaids.... And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children
after you, to inherit them for a possession; they shall be your bondmen
for ever." As we have already stated, the Hebrews had but two terms for
"servant"--the generic term _evedh_, one under contract for a term of
years, and _saukir_, one hired by the day, week, or year. Now, the term
here translated "bondman" is the generic #EVEDH#, _evedh_, elsewhere
translated "servant," and therefore should have been thus translated
here, unless a different rendering is required by the context. The more
literal reading of the Hebrew is, "And thy men-servants and thy
maid-servants which shall be to thee from the nations around you, of
them shall ye procure the man-servant and maid-servant." What, then, was
the difference between the Hebrew and heathen _evedh_?

This. The Hebrew could only be an _evedh_, a servant by contract, for
six years, Ex. 21:2--"Six years shall he serve, but in the seventh _he
shall go out free_;" (longer service could not be contracted for, but
_must be_ voluntary, Ex. 21:5;) or as a hired servant or sojourner till
the jubilee,