FREE BOOKS

Author's List




PREV.   NEXT  
|<   92   93   94   95   96   97   98   99   100   101   102   103   104   105   106   107   108   109   110   111   112   113   114   115   116  
117   118   119   120   121   122   123   124   125   126   127   128   129   130   131   132   133   134   135   136   137   138   139   140   141   >>   >|  
for the Bible not enlightening us on the topic? namely, since Logic, like Mathematics, belongs to the common intellect,--Possibly so: but still, it cannot reconcile us to _vacillations_ and _contradictions_ in the Bible on so critical a point. Gradually I saw that deeper and deeper difficulties lay at bottom. If Logic _cannot_ be matter of authoritative revelation, so long as the nature of the human mind is what it is,--if it appears, as a fact, that in the writings and speeches of the New Testament the logic is far from lucid,--if we are to compare Logic with Mathematics and other sciences, which grew up with civilization and long time,--we cannot doubt that the apostles imbibed the logic, like the astronomy, of their own day, with all its defects. Indeed, the same is otherwise plain. Paul's reasonings are those of a Gamaliel, and often are indefensible by our logical notions. John, also (as I had been recently learning,) has a wonderful similarity to Philo. This being the case, it becomes of deep interest to us to know,--if we are to accept results _at second hand_ from Paul and John,--_what was the sort of evidence which convinced them?_ The moment this question is put, we see the essential defect to which we are exposed, in not being able to cross-examine them. Paul says that "Christ appeared to him:" elsewhere, that he has "received of the Lord" certain facts, concerning the Holy Supper: and that his Gospel was "given to him by revelation." If any modern made such statements to us, and on this ground demanded our credence, it would be allowable, and indeed obligatory, to ask many questions of him. What does he _mean_ by saying that he has had a "revelation?" Did he see a sight, or hear a sound? or was it an inward impression? and how does he distinguish it as divine?[4] Until these questions are fully answered, we have no materials at all before us for deciding to accept his results: to believe him, merely because he is earnest and persuaded, would be judged to indicate the weakness of inexperience. How then can it be pretended that we have, or can possibly get, the means of assuring ourselves that the apostles held correct principles of evidence and applied them justly, when we are not able to interrogate them? Farther, it appears that _our_ experience of delusion forces us to enact a very severe test of supernatural revelation. No doubt, we can conceive that which is equivalent to a _new sense_ opening to us;
PREV.   NEXT  
|<   92   93   94   95   96   97   98   99   100   101   102   103   104   105   106   107   108   109   110   111   112   113   114   115   116  
117   118   119   120   121   122   123   124   125   126   127   128   129   130   131   132   133   134   135   136   137   138   139   140   141   >>   >|  



Top keywords:

revelation

 

accept

 

results

 

apostles

 

questions

 

evidence

 
appears
 

Mathematics

 
deeper
 
Supper

Gospel

 
allowable
 
credence
 

impression

 
ground
 

statements

 
modern
 

demanded

 
obligatory
 

materials


equivalent

 
correct
 

principles

 

applied

 

assuring

 

justly

 

forces

 

supernatural

 

severe

 

delusion


interrogate

 

Farther

 

conceive

 
experience
 
possibly
 

pretended

 

answered

 

deciding

 

distinguish

 

divine


opening

 

weakness

 
inexperience
 

judged

 
earnest
 
persuaded
 

interest

 
Testament
 
speeches
 

writings